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faq 95911983
by Zahra Navidi on 2016-11-25 09:42:09
"Set all other marginal utilities of travel time by mode relative to the car value.For example, if your logit model says something like:thenβ(dur) = 6, β(tt,car) = 0, β(tt,pt) = -1,"
by Kai Nagel on 2016-11-25 21:44:52
Dear Zahra,
You are on the right track. I would in your situation try
beta_perf = 6 (= from the mode with the least negative beta)
beta_pt = 0 (= the mode with the least negative beta)
beta_car=-1 (= offsets for all modes that are less agreable than the "best" mode)
etc.
Does this make sense? If not, then there is either a typo or a knot in my head.
---
Recall that travel is also punished by the opportunity cost of time. This is approximated by beta_perf (see the book). So even if beta_pt were +1, together with beta_perf = 6 this would end up as an (approximate) penalty of -5/h.
Best wishes Kai
by Zahra Navidi on 2016-12-01 11:10:15
Thank you vey much Kai.
To follow up with my previous question, my model is like:
-7/h.tt(car) -6/h.tt(pt) -5/h.tt(ptWait)
So, running my scenario with the following numbers give me the correct mode share:
beta_perf = 7
beta_wait = -5
beta_pt = -6
beta_car = -7
However, running it with the following number result in a very different mode share:
beta_perf = 5
beta_wait = 0
beta_pt = -1
beta_car = -2
I understand that the first set of numbers are not the correct way of calibrating scoring function according to a choice model. However, I can't explain why it gives me such a perfect mode share. So, I'd like to ask your opinion about this, is it just a coincidence or is there a way to explain what's happening.
Thank you very much.
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