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This is a slightly subjective fix. The issue is that `f > 0` does not mean that `f` is positive everywhere; it means that `f` is non-negative everywhere and positive at at least one point. I believe this is what is intended in the informal statement. The issue is slightly confounded by the fact that if for all `x`, `deriv f x > f x` and `f x` is non-negative then the derivative is strictly positive, and thus `f` is strictly monotone, and thus being non-negative implies being strictly positive everywhere. So there is no mathematical change to the meaning here but I think this is a more faithful representation of the question. It should also be noted that the fact that there is no mathematical change depends upon not-quite-totally-trivial facts. I have also taken the opportunity to rewrite question with slightly improved style.
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